As I write this statement, I am a very angry, confused and frustrated man. My name is Brian, and my wife and I married at 20 years of age, we were both virgins. We are now into our 54 th year of marriage and my wife told me that about 45 years ago she had a vaginal discharge on three occasions. 1) when she was pregnant, 2) when she went to a family planning clinic, and 3) when we went to a doctor in Australia to consult about adding another child to our family. During his examination of my wife he said that she had a vaginal discharge which was triggered by a sexual encounter, he did not outright say that she had an STI or STD, but she felt that the implication was clear. On all three occasions, we both took medication to prevent cross contamination. My wife cannot recall what this discharge was diagnosed as, she has carried this baggage around for 45 years believing that I have been unfaithful to her on at least three occasions. For the record, I can absolutely attest to the fact that neither one of us has ever had any form of extramarital encounters, I mean this sincerely and know it to be true, so here is my question, .........Can two , 100 percent monogamous people, who have never had another partner generate a sexual discharge/disease between them that could be diagnosed as an STI or STD.?? This is extremely painful for both of us , I am totally floored and in shock that my wife would think this and carry it all this time , and I can't explain it to her. No amount of internet research provides a clear cut answer. Your thoughts, options and opinion are urgently required, I am sick with worry and lack the knowledge to address this issue, I can readily assure you that I have never considered a partner outside my marriage and know beyond a doubt that my wife would be the same, please help me overcome and understand what may have happened to get us into this hellhole, without third party involvement, what did we actually have....thanks

Brian