Does Oxandrolone Treatment Affect Spermatogenesis?
Question: Hello, I understand testosterone has a role in spermatogenesis. Does this mean the steroid treatment (oxandrolone) I took at 14 when I was in beginning of puberty contributed to my first spermatogenesis?
Brief Answer:
No.
Detailed Answer:
Hi,
Welcome to XXXXXXX
Locally produced testosterone (through Leydig's cells) acts on tubules to stimulate spermatogenesis. Normally testicular testosterone levels are 100times more than blood levels.
Testosterone when given exogenously (in the form of oxandrolone), will suppress pituitary FSH & LH, which in turn will suppress spermatogenesis. If you want to take anything for boosting testosterone & spermatogenesis, it has to be injection LH OR preferably HCG.
Oxandrolone taken by you is least likely to have contributed in spermatogenesis.
Hope this helps you.
Let me know if you have other concerns.
Regards.
Above answer was peer-reviewed by :
Dr. Chakravarthy Mazumdar
Thank you Dr Dattaprasad,
So does that mean blood testosterone, doesnt have a role in spermatogenesis?
Secondly, i understand this process takes 75 days.....is it possible my oxandrolone treatment decreased time taken to 70 days? Or is this not correct logic?
Thanks and Best Regards,
XXXX
Brief Answer:
No.
Detailed Answer:
Hi,
Welcome back.
Testosterone comes to blood from testes. So blood testosterone level indirectly reflects testicular testosterone levels. It can't be interpreted in the opposite way that blood testosterone has role in spermatogenesis or not.
Oxandrolone treatment doesn't decrease time taken for spermatogenesis. It remains same.
If you take testosterone exogenously (oxandrolone), its not going to increase testicular testosterone levels to that great extant & won't have direct effect on spermatogenesis. But it will have indirect effect of lowering spermatogenesis by suppressing pituitary FSH & LH.
Hope this helps you.
Regards.
Above answer was peer-reviewed by :
Dr. Chakravarthy Mazumdar
Dear Dr Dattaprasad,
Thank you very much for helping me understand. My concern is the oxandrolone DIDNT suppress LH + FSH...and then went to testis and assisted in spermatogenesis process. This is what i think.
Finally, out of interest , how much would 2.5mg oxandrolone equate to blood testosterone figure?
And how much would testosterone undecanote 40mg equate to in terms of blood testosterone?
Hope you can give me idea. Thanks and Best Regards
Brief Answer:
Not defined.
Detailed Answer:
Hi,
Welcome back.
It won't happen that oxandrolone increased spermatogenesis & didn't supress pituitary.
Regarding other questions, response to oxandrolone/testosterone undecanoate is measured by endpoints other than blood testosterone levels (growth spurt/muscle mass/bone densitometry).
Second thing, blood testosterone will depend on person's weight & metabolizing capacity of that drug.
So there is no hard & fast equation of how much dose of each medicine will increase blood levels to a particular level.
Hope this helps you.
Regards.
Above answer was peer-reviewed by :
Dr. Chakravarthy Mazumdar
Thank you Dr Dattaprasad for your valued opinion.
I have a final general query about androgen receptors.
When androgen meets with its receptor, does this new combined protein then proceed to nucleus to do its work.....or is the receptor just a 'carrier' for the androgen?
Wishing you al the best
XXXX
Brief Answer:
Receptors in nucleus.
Detailed Answer:
Hi,
Welcome back.
There are various mechanisms of action of testosterone/androgens. Out of the many mechanisms, testosterone goes to the nucleus & binds its receptors to exert its action. Other mechanism is that, testosterone gets converted to dihydrotestosterone (DHT) & its the DHT which carries further action. There is third mechanism also (by getting converted in estrogens, especially action in brain), but its not significant at genital organs.
Hope this helps you.
It was refreshing to have conversation you.
Wish you good health.
Regards.
Above answer was peer-reviewed by :
Dr. Chakravarthy Mazumdar
Thank you sincerely Dr Dattaprasad.
I am very happy now from your answers.
I have a final query.........in the first stage of spermatogenesis it is believed sex steroids are important.
So is sex steroid the only requirement for FIRST stage spermatogenesis, or is FSH important also for this early stage?
Kind REgards
Brief Answer:
Both important.
Detailed Answer:
Hi,
Welcome back.
For qualitative & quantitavely normal sperm production both FSH & testosterone are required in early spermatogenesis.
Regards.
Above answer was peer-reviewed by :
Dr. Chakravarthy Mazumdar
Thank you Dr Dataprasad for your valued answers.
Continuing from last answer, can spermatogenesis begin right from the very first pulses of FSH and LH?
Or is high pulses required for a certain period of time before spermatogenesis can start?
Thanks and wishing you all the best.
Regards,
XXXX
Brief Answer:
Not known.
Detailed Answer:
Hi,
Welcome back.
Its difficult to say whether spermatogenesis starts with first pulse of FSH & LH OR it requires prolonged high levels because initiation of spermatogenesis is difficult to assess (unlike in women where you can assess menarche by appearence of menses).
Different animal experiments done in this regard yield different & sometimes contradictory results.
But grossly speaking there is no reason for spermatogenesis not to start with first pulse of FSH/LH. Though for sperms to be produced in adequate quantity & quality should require little prolonged exposure (duration unknown).
Hope this helps you.
Regards.
Above answer was peer-reviewed by :
Dr. Chakravarthy Mazumdar
Thanks Dr Dattaprasad,
Just for clarification......we know spermatogenesis occurs in puberty, but before then exists the 'primitive' cells. Are these what are known as spermatocyte?
Do spermatocyte exist before the beginning of puberty..or are they called something else?
Thanks and wishing you the best.
Regards
XXXX
Brief Answer:
Spermatogonia.
Detailed Answer:
Hi,
Welcome back.
Those cells are called as spermatogonia. They are present there even before puberty & act like stem cells, either in reserve pool or constantly renewing pool. They enter into process of differentiation to form sperm after puberty.
Regards.
Above answer was peer-reviewed by :
Dr. Chakravarthy Mazumdar
Thank you Dr. Dattaprasad for your time and valued answers.
Because your answers are of the best here, i would like to ask one last thing.
During childhood high growth hormones are present which then decrease at end of puberty/early adulthood.
But suppose if the same low levels was present in a child - would they still grow albeit at lesser rate?
And similiarly, can low levels in adulthood cause growth of internal organs, for example, but other factors opposing this?
Hope you all the best and thanks in advance.
Regards,
XXXX
Brief Answer:
Right.
Detailed Answer:
Hi,
Welcome back.
I think I didn't understand your question. Following is my answer to what I supposed to be your query. Please correct me if I am wrong.
Low levels will cause growth of a child at a lesser rate (when compared to normal levels), but growth will be better than the one observed with absolute deficiency.
Normally growth hormone levels are lower in adults when compared to young age/pubertal age. Those low levels are sufficient to cause physical well being & normally should not cause excessive growth of internal organs.
Hope this helps you.
Kindly let me know if interpretation of query was wrong.
Regards.
Above answer was peer-reviewed by :
Dr. Chakravarthy Mazumdar