
Having Fever, Pain In Thigh, Groin And Pelvis Area. CT Scan Showed Clear. Any Idea What Is Causing This?

CBC was normal except for elevated platelets (503) and slightly lowered HCV. Her urine was normal. A gyn pelvic exam revealed nothing. A pelvic sonogram revealed nothing.
She is in excruiating pain. She is currently hospitalized and the doctors can not give us an explanation for her unrelenting pain. Please any thoughts you might have on this?
Do you have any idea what is causing her pain and symptoms?
Welcome to healthcare Magic!
The constellation of fever, lymphadenopathy and inflammation suggests the disease to be of some infectious origin. The obturator lymph nodes are invoved so it should fall within the catchment area of these lymph nodes. The principal afferents of obturator lymph nodes are derived from the inguinal lymph nodes, the XXXXXXX lymphatics of the abdominal wall below the umbilicus and of the adductor region of the thigh, and the lymphatics from the clitoridis, the membranous(deep) urethra, the fundus of the urinary bladder, the cervix uteri, and upper part of the vagina.
I would advise to get a Chest Xray, repeat CBC, RFT,CRP, Procalcitonin levels, Blood culture and sensitivity, Urine routine and culture/sensitivity, a High vaginal swab- gram stain and culture..
She should be examined by an Orthopedician to rule out hip joint septic arthritis or psoas abscess and also get examined by a Gynecologist to locate any brooding infection in obturator catchment area and examine the vulva for any abscess there(eg Skiene/Bartholin gland abscess).
She should take a broad spectrum antibiotic combination like
cefepime 1gram 8hourly intravenously and tab. linezolid600 mg twice a day.
And should control the fever with acetaminophen and tepid sponging.
The treatment should be carried out in the supervision of an experienced physician.
The emperical treatment becomes important to prevent development of severe sepsis and it's sequelae.
I wish your daughter a great health!


Welcome back to Healthcare Magic Physician's Desk!
The SED rate if 96 at first hour then it is very important.
It is a nonspecific index which reflects inflammatory condition which can be due to infection or noninfectious causes.
Is she sexually active?
I wish your daughter a great health.


Do you have any further thoughts? Thank you.
Welcome back to Healthcare Magic Physician's Desk!
Your doctor has rightly decided the test, he is also thinking it to be an infection in first differential diagnosis, added advantage is Gallium imaging can pick up some unsuspected cancers as well.
Gallium imaging is used to image inflammation and chronic infections, and tumors as it is taken up by many kinds of cancer cells in amounts that exceed those of normal tissues. Thus, an increased uptake of gallium-67 may indicate a new or old infection, an inflammatory focus from any cause, or a cancerous tumor.
Any STD is unlikely to be a cause after three months of abstinence.
I think you should give a strong thought to my first answer.
Get the work-up I have advised as soon as possible.
I strongly advise that she should start the empirical antibiotics by today because the sepsis is getting manifest now, the raised TLC makes me very suspicious.
Please be proactive because delaying make take the opportunity of winning away from you.
The antibiotics can be modified/stopped in your case if something else is proven.
Also get serum RA Factor, XXXXXXX C-ANCA, P-ANCA, ENA Tests done to detect connective tissue disorder as a possibility.
I wish your daughter a great health.

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