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How Long After Onset Of Puberty Does The Growth Spurt Occur?
Question: hello , my question concerns endocronology child growth and development.
How long after onset of puberty does the pubertal growth spurt occur. i read it was around 2 years.....but is it same in boy with CDGP ie is it possible that in a CDGP boy it can occur only 6 months after the onset of puberty? Kindly awating your answer,
XXXXXXX
How long after onset of puberty does the pubertal growth spurt occur. i read it was around 2 years.....but is it same in boy with CDGP ie is it possible that in a CDGP boy it can occur only 6 months after the onset of puberty? Kindly awating your answer,
XXXXXXX
Hello,
Thanks for posting your query.
The average age of puberty onset in boys is 11-12, with the normal range from 10-14. All boys will experience a growth spurt, usually 1-2 years after the onset of puberty. This growth spurt lasts about two to three years with an average of 3 1/2 inches of height per year.Medically speaking this growth spurt occurs in the stage 3-4 of the puberty after the testis volume reaches 10 ml.This then is completed by the end of puberty when the child is said to have achieved the adult size.
In case of CDGP both the onset of puberty and the growth spurt are delayed along with a slower rate of growth velocity.
But all these are calculations based on research and studies and may vary from individual to individual . So ideally the growth spurt in a cdgp child should be after 1-2 year of onset of puberty or later than any normal child but if it has started after six months its nothing worrisome and may progress for a longer time .
This is not true if the child has been given any medications ( hormonal or steroidal ) for delayed puberty .So if the child's diagnosis is not confirmed or he has received any such medications then you should consult his endocrinologist for further evaluation.
Hope I have answered your query.
Kindly accept my answer in case you have no further queries.
Thanks for posting your query.
The average age of puberty onset in boys is 11-12, with the normal range from 10-14. All boys will experience a growth spurt, usually 1-2 years after the onset of puberty. This growth spurt lasts about two to three years with an average of 3 1/2 inches of height per year.Medically speaking this growth spurt occurs in the stage 3-4 of the puberty after the testis volume reaches 10 ml.This then is completed by the end of puberty when the child is said to have achieved the adult size.
In case of CDGP both the onset of puberty and the growth spurt are delayed along with a slower rate of growth velocity.
But all these are calculations based on research and studies and may vary from individual to individual . So ideally the growth spurt in a cdgp child should be after 1-2 year of onset of puberty or later than any normal child but if it has started after six months its nothing worrisome and may progress for a longer time .
This is not true if the child has been given any medications ( hormonal or steroidal ) for delayed puberty .So if the child's diagnosis is not confirmed or he has received any such medications then you should consult his endocrinologist for further evaluation.
Hope I have answered your query.
Kindly accept my answer in case you have no further queries.
Above answer was peer-reviewed by :
Dr. Chakravarthy Mazumdar
Thank you Dr XXXXXXX XXXXXXX for your kind advice. i have another query if you could answer i'd be most grateful.
I understand that the hypothalamic pituitary gonadal axis is active , albeit very low state, before the onset of puberty. Does this mean that in all 12 year old completely healthy CDGP boys this is the case? Or in some cases it would be non-existent.
I read somewhere that the mechanism is active even in prepubertal children (LHRH quantities present) but in very low dormant state.
I understand that the hypothalamic pituitary gonadal axis is active , albeit very low state, before the onset of puberty. Does this mean that in all 12 year old completely healthy CDGP boys this is the case? Or in some cases it would be non-existent.
I read somewhere that the mechanism is active even in prepubertal children (LHRH quantities present) but in very low dormant state.
Hello,
Thanks for the follow up.
The hypothalamic–pituitary–gonadal axis is a critical part in the development and regulation of a number of the body's systems, such as the reproductive and immune systems.It is active perinatally , suppressed during childhood and is reactivated by the testosterone produced in gonads which leads to the pubertal changes.
Yes this axis remains active although suppressed in all prepubertal normal CDGP males . Its not non existent although may not be reactivated in hypogonadism .
Hypogonadism is a pathology and different from CDGP which is just a para physiological phenomena and such children are considered normal ( without any pathology).
Yes you are right that Gnrh ( LHRH and FSHRH ) are present but the pulse release required is only possible after reactivation of the axis during puberty.
Hope I have answered your query.
Wishing you good health
Regards
Thanks for the follow up.
The hypothalamic–pituitary–gonadal axis is a critical part in the development and regulation of a number of the body's systems, such as the reproductive and immune systems.It is active perinatally , suppressed during childhood and is reactivated by the testosterone produced in gonads which leads to the pubertal changes.
Yes this axis remains active although suppressed in all prepubertal normal CDGP males . Its not non existent although may not be reactivated in hypogonadism .
Hypogonadism is a pathology and different from CDGP which is just a para physiological phenomena and such children are considered normal ( without any pathology).
Yes you are right that Gnrh ( LHRH and FSHRH ) are present but the pulse release required is only possible after reactivation of the axis during puberty.
Hope I have answered your query.
Wishing you good health
Regards
Above answer was peer-reviewed by :
Dr. Chakravarthy Mazumdar
Well I was cdgp and took 3month course oxandrolone at age 14.6 but nothing happened. After 2 month break I commenced another 3 month course and during this course I achieved massive growth and rapid sexual development I remember the. Testicles were hanging much lower and I could ejaculate alot. But I suspect I went through spontaneous puberty as low dose oxandrolone doesn't cause these events. I remember by end of second course I grew 9cm during a 3 month period. This can't be just down to oxandrolone right?
I know it's difficult with no records available, but when was it likely I had onset of puberty ( I understand growth spurt happens in middle of puberty) . Thank you in advance
I know it's difficult with no records available, but when was it likely I had onset of puberty ( I understand growth spurt happens in middle of puberty) . Thank you in advance
Hello,
Thanks for the follow up.
Yes your suspician seems valid and though oxandrolone can cause increase in height when given for 3-6 months or so it's effect differs in prepubertal versus pubertal boys.
Studies do mention of pubertal boys achieving 9cm growth due to oxandrolone treatment as opposed to 6 cm growth as achieved by prepubertal boys .
Considering the time frame of your growth spurt and the oxandrolone treatment the onset of puberty could have been around a year back so most likely around the age of 14 years approximately .
However as you rightly mention such prediction is difficult without critical information and reports of your physiological state at that time .
Hope I have answered your query.
Kindly accept my answer in case you have no further queries.
Regards
Thanks for the follow up.
Yes your suspician seems valid and though oxandrolone can cause increase in height when given for 3-6 months or so it's effect differs in prepubertal versus pubertal boys.
Studies do mention of pubertal boys achieving 9cm growth due to oxandrolone treatment as opposed to 6 cm growth as achieved by prepubertal boys .
Considering the time frame of your growth spurt and the oxandrolone treatment the onset of puberty could have been around a year back so most likely around the age of 14 years approximately .
However as you rightly mention such prediction is difficult without critical information and reports of your physiological state at that time .
Hope I have answered your query.
Kindly accept my answer in case you have no further queries.
Regards
Above answer was peer-reviewed by :
Dr. Chakravarthy Mazumdar
Thanks for your advice Dr XXXXXXX
I have one last question. during a blood test to examine testosterone level in a child, how does one determine from the measurement how much is from adrenal gland and how much is from testes? My best regards and thanks for all your help its much appreciated
R
I have one last question. during a blood test to examine testosterone level in a child, how does one determine from the measurement how much is from adrenal gland and how much is from testes? My best regards and thanks for all your help its much appreciated
R
Hello,
Thanks for the follow up.
Testosterone is mainly produced by the testis ( 95%). The levels of free testosterone measured by a blood test can be asssumed to be from the testis as the adrenal gland produces minimal amount of testosterone and some other weak androgens (which are converted to testosterone in tissues ) which have no significance in comparison to the testosterone from testis . Thus either over-secretion or under-secretion of adrenal androgens usually does not have any noticeable consequences in males.
So it's not distinguished on a blood test and is assumed to be related to the testosterone output of the testis unless significant gonadal pathology exists.
Hope I have answered your query .
Kindly accept my answer in case you have no further queries.
Regards
Thanks for the follow up.
Testosterone is mainly produced by the testis ( 95%). The levels of free testosterone measured by a blood test can be asssumed to be from the testis as the adrenal gland produces minimal amount of testosterone and some other weak androgens (which are converted to testosterone in tissues ) which have no significance in comparison to the testosterone from testis . Thus either over-secretion or under-secretion of adrenal androgens usually does not have any noticeable consequences in males.
So it's not distinguished on a blood test and is assumed to be related to the testosterone output of the testis unless significant gonadal pathology exists.
Hope I have answered your query .
Kindly accept my answer in case you have no further queries.
Regards
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Above answer was peer-reviewed by :
Dr. Chakravarthy Mazumdar
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