Sign-in to Ask A Doctor - 24x7
OR
Sign in with Google
What Is An Ovulation And Amenorrhea Typical Of Postmenopausal Women Associated With?
Question: What is anovulation and amenorrhea typical of postmrnopausal women associated with? Is it prolactin, FSH, corpora lutea, or cornified cells in the vagina? How would the next ovulatory cycle after implantation prevented? Is it HCG produced by the trophoblast, too much prolactin, prostaglandins produced by the corpus outrun, or few picture in the ovary?
Hi,
Thanks for writing in.
1) Anovulation in post menopausal women is an inevitable process due to spontaneous apoptosis of the resting oocytes(developing eggs). There is only a fixed number of these primordial oocytes in women unlike in men where theoretically they can produce spermatozoa as long as they live.
The number of years a woman ovulates is primarily determined by genes; in any given woman it is very similar for her mother and sisters. The FSH rises because ovulation stops and the ovary stops producing both estrogen and inhibin. It is a good marker of anovulation.
The other markers you mentioned are not useful. What is even better marker is anti mullerian hormone - we are just beginning to understand it. It is produced by the ovary directly and it is produced from the early primordial follicles so if the levels are low it will indicate impending menopause even in women who might have cycles.
2) Ovulation after implantation is prevented by the progesterone that is produced from the corpus luteum. The embryo produces hCG which stimulates this production of progesterone. So if there is no implantation there is no hCG, no progesterone and the next cycle automatically starts.
You can write back to me for any further clarifications.
Regards
Anantharaman
Thanks for writing in.
1) Anovulation in post menopausal women is an inevitable process due to spontaneous apoptosis of the resting oocytes(developing eggs). There is only a fixed number of these primordial oocytes in women unlike in men where theoretically they can produce spermatozoa as long as they live.
The number of years a woman ovulates is primarily determined by genes; in any given woman it is very similar for her mother and sisters. The FSH rises because ovulation stops and the ovary stops producing both estrogen and inhibin. It is a good marker of anovulation.
The other markers you mentioned are not useful. What is even better marker is anti mullerian hormone - we are just beginning to understand it. It is produced by the ovary directly and it is produced from the early primordial follicles so if the levels are low it will indicate impending menopause even in women who might have cycles.
2) Ovulation after implantation is prevented by the progesterone that is produced from the corpus luteum. The embryo produces hCG which stimulates this production of progesterone. So if there is no implantation there is no hCG, no progesterone and the next cycle automatically starts.
You can write back to me for any further clarifications.
Regards
Anantharaman
Above answer was peer-reviewed by :
Dr. Shanthi.E
Dr Anantharaman:
Thank you so much for your very easy to understand explanation. I have a couple of other questions:
1)Would you say that the effects of human growth hormone are to stimulate triglyceride lipolysis in fat cells, produce insulin resistance, and stimulate milk synthesis by the lactating mammary glands and not to stimulate menarche? and,
2) given major differences between female and male hormone production, would it be fair to say that daily hormonal levels vary more in females than in males?
Thank you so much for your very easy to understand explanation. I have a couple of other questions:
1)Would you say that the effects of human growth hormone are to stimulate triglyceride lipolysis in fat cells, produce insulin resistance, and stimulate milk synthesis by the lactating mammary glands and not to stimulate menarche? and,
2) given major differences between female and male hormone production, would it be fair to say that daily hormonal levels vary more in females than in males?
Hii thanks for writing in.
1) growth hormone (GH) has two pronged action one is to increase growth and lean muscle mass these are mediated through a intermediate hormone called IGF1. The second action is a metabolic one to mobilize fuels from periphery so that the protein is spared this also involves triglyceride limo lysis .GH might have an anabolic role for the breast tissue but may not stimulate lactation .prolactin does that.menarche has poorly defined relationship with GH .in disorders with isolated deficiency of GH menarche does occur but a little delayed.
2) yes hormone values vary more in females than males but not within the same day in females the estrogen level is lowest at the time of menstruation and highest at the time of ovulation.
Regards
ANANTHARAMAN
1) growth hormone (GH) has two pronged action one is to increase growth and lean muscle mass these are mediated through a intermediate hormone called IGF1. The second action is a metabolic one to mobilize fuels from periphery so that the protein is spared this also involves triglyceride limo lysis .GH might have an anabolic role for the breast tissue but may not stimulate lactation .prolactin does that.menarche has poorly defined relationship with GH .in disorders with isolated deficiency of GH menarche does occur but a little delayed.
2) yes hormone values vary more in females than males but not within the same day in females the estrogen level is lowest at the time of menstruation and highest at the time of ovulation.
Regards
ANANTHARAMAN
Note: For more information on hormonal imbalance symptoms or unmanaged diabetes with other comorbid conditions, get back to us & Consult with an Endocrinologist. Click here to book an appointment.
Above answer was peer-reviewed by :
Dr. Chakravarthy Mazumdar
Answered by
Get personalised answers from verified doctor in minutes across 80+ specialties
