Hi, 6 months ago i had an accident in the workplace where my chair slid away when I went to sit, I fell hitting my neck and upper back, other than soreness I did not seek medical intervention. 10 weeks later I underwent a laproscopic cholecysectomy. 13 days post surgery i developed unbearable headache, I was initially diagnosed with suffering a migrane . I am 46 yo and had never suffered headaches previously. The headache worsened requiring hospitalisation, I was unable to sit,stand or walk without considerable pain. I could not eat yet kept vomiting . I was sent home from hospital diagnosed as suffering a low pressure headache, nil interventions were undertaken. 2 weeks later I again returned to hospital as the headaches were now present even on lying down. this was now occuring for approx 5 weeks, I was only sleeping for a few hours a night, temazepam did not help, even 15mg did nothing for me, neither did the endone which was prescribed by the hospital after my second visit. These headaches were present for 7 weeks consistently day and night, sitting, lying or standing, nothing could relieve them. I was advised by a friend to consult a chiropractor, which I did who stated my neck was out by 50mm on scan. He performed a session of manipulations (5 in total) I did start to feel better with the headaches subsiding. My partner also suggested voltaren which helped also. I am too scared to have further manipulations and suffered anxiety on each visit to the chiro. I required 3 months off work, i have now returned to work but have found that I get shooting pain through my arms and into my fingertips. Is it possible that the original trauma to the neck, then hyperextension of the neck for surgery caused this pain I was suffering from? I was perfectly healthy prior to this operation and I can t let go of the coincidence of my sudden onset of extreme pain. I have now had a neck CT performed which states Mild degenerative change at the uncovertebral joints at c5/6 level. Disc osteophyte complexes at c5/6 and c6/7 levels. The changes are most sever at c5/6 level. No other significant abnormality is demonstrated. Can you tell me what this means and how it may have occcurred?