Is Testosterone Still Bound To Androgen Receptors In Babies?
I have a question about high testosterone during the XXXXXXX puberty in early life of male babies. Obviously during this event male babies voice isnt affected whereas during the second later puberty , testsoterone affects the voice.
My question: Biochemically, is testosterone still being bound to androgen receptors in the babies voice , but insufficiently to cause changes?
Right combination of factors is needed for testosterone to bring the changes
Detailed Answer:
Thanks for asking on HealthcareMagic.
Biochemically testosterone will always bind to androgen receptors in any condition when either of them are present. But the binding is just the first step of a cascade of reactions that ultimately leads to the pubertal changes. Before puberty this cascade is not ready and hence the effects like voice changes do not occur. It is like the fact that irrespective of how many times you open the conference gates, until the time of the conference actually arrives, people will not arrive or accumulate and the conference will not start. It is true that the amount of testosterone is insufficient but giving a large dose of testosterone will not make puberty start when it is not due.
Hope that answers your questions.
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Regards
Dr. Diptanshu Das
Thanks and bes regards
CAH is characterised by excess androgens and true early puberty
Detailed Answer:
Thanks for writing back.
CAH or congenital adrenal hyperplasia is a condition caused dut to high concentrations of androgens in utero. It may be associated with androgen insensitivity. Some children with CAH develop true precocious puberty with early maturation of the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis (central puberty). That is because the entire system gets fast forwarded due to the excess of androgens.
Hope that explains your queries.
Regards
Dr. Diptanshu Das
Just to reiterate, during the male baby 'mini puberty' are his androgens binding to his androgen receptors in the voice/bone/hair follicle tissues?
Thanks and best Regards, XXXX
During'mini puberty' androgens would be binding to their receptors
Detailed Answer:
Thanks for writing back.
During the male baby 'mini puberty' (which is actually true puberty, just a little early), androgens would definitely binding to the androgen receptors wherever they are, including those concerned with voice/bone/hair follicle tissues.
Hope that answers your queries.
Regards
Dr. Diptanshu Das
Thanks for your helpful answers Dr. XXXXXXX
I just want to be certain 'the first reaction, between my endogonous androgens and androgen receptors occured BEFORE the treatment i had. I dont care if any changes happened after that. Just the first reaction.
During the 'mini puberty' of a baby can we say with certainty androgen receptors are present in the surface of his voice/bone/hair follicle cells?
The endogenous androgens were doing their work much before treatment
Detailed Answer:
Thanks for writing back.
Let me confirm that the first effect of the endogenous androgens was much earlier than any treatment possible. In fact, the excess of androgens was what triggered the early onset of puberty and pubertal changes including increased hair growth and voice changes. Let me mention that hormones acts by triggering or facilitating certain chemical reactions which need not be at the site of action. So, it does not really matter where the androgen receptors are located, they are programmed to perform certain actions when the hormone is available to trigger them. Thus the availability of androgens makes them bind to the androgen receptors and the effect is increased hair growth or deepening of voice.
Hope that helps.
If you found my answer to be helpful, please close the thread with a positive review and a 5 star rating.
Regards
Dr. Diptanshu Das
If i may ask one final favour?
Many studies state that during the juvenile pause, HPG axis goes into very low activity.
But why not a complete physiological shutdown?
Is there a scientific explanation or justification for it to maintain existence at a low level of activity?
Best Regards and Happy New Year Dr XXXXXXX
XXXX
There is physiological basis for the HPG axis not to regress completely
Detailed Answer:
Thanks for asking again. Wish you a Happy New Year.
The hypothalamic–pituitary–gonadal axis (HPG axis) refers to the effects of the hypothalamus, pituitary gland, and gonads as if these individual endocrine glands were a single entity as a whole. This axis controls development, reproduction, and aging in animals. All of them remain functional much later in our life. The coordination remains persistent in the form of a feedback mechanism. So there is no reason for complete physiological dissociation of the components of this axis although the coordination may eventually come down. Hence that is the scientific and physiological explanation behind the existent activity.
Hope that helps.
Regards
Dr. Diptanshu Das
What about during the juvenile pause - why doesnt it just shut down completely instead of maintaining low activity. What scientific justification is there for it to not just completely shut down?
What is the scientific reasoning for having very low Gnrh and LH and Testosterone during the 'juvenile pause' ?
Thanks and best Regards,
It is just a preparatory phase for a more intense phase called puberty
Detailed Answer:
Thanks for asking back again.
I have already explained in my last answer that there is no reason for complete dissociation in the function of the hypothalamus, pituitary and the gonads even during the juvenile pause. I think that you got the concept slightly wrong. I can give you an analogy which can make you understand. It is like a car backing up (no forward movement) from the starting like before picking up the gear to accumulate speed before the final take off on a long trajectory. The juvenile pause is just a pause (characterised by active preparation) to gear up for the rapid changes that bring the puberty. This is a transient dip and not a permanent one. In fact, it gives way to a more active HPG axis.
Going through the following scientific writings may be of help:
http://www.macpeds.com/documents/RegulationandDisordersofPubertalTiming.pdf
http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/0000
In case you are satisfied with the answer, please care to leave a positive review and a 5 star rating.
Regards
Dr. Diptanshu Das
I've read many studies on this topic. My problem is as follows:
Steroid treatment for CDGP has possibility of stimulating and maturing Gnrh-LH-testosterone secretion.
This 'treatment stimulated' testosterone then binded to my voice/bone/hair follicle cells.
What if this was the first ever interaction of testosterone with voice/bone/hair follicle in my body?
Many Thanks
Treatment stimulated testosterone could not have been the first
Detailed Answer:
Thanks again.
The testosterone given as the treatment could not be the initial testosterone to bind to its receptors. You have already alive for n number of years prior to that when the endogenous testosterone of your body was doing the same. Irrespective of the amount, testosterone would definitely have been there right from your birth and even before that. So, the testosterone given for treatment or stimulated by the treatment could not have been the first testosterone to act.
Hope that helps.
And in period of early life (before birth, point of birth onwards) would receptors have been present in voice/bone/hair follicle cells....do these cells always have androgen receptors irrespective if belong in baby, child, teen, man, woman?
Sorry for inconvenience and my misunderstanding.
Many thanks and wish u all the best
Irrespective of age and sex the receptors are present
Detailed Answer:
Thanks again.
In the early period even before you were born, you have been exposed to high testosterone and the receptors were still present at that time, it is only that the system was not yet mature to bring about all the changes immediately, but it was definitely in process. Irrespective of whether in a baby or in teen or adult, and irrespective of the gender, the receptors are present where they are supposed to be.
I understand your inquisitiveness, but you must also understand that scientific literature is very technical in nature and unless you already have the capacity to read them (which many doctors even lack), you might misinterpret what they really mean.
Hope to have been of help.
Regards
Dr. Diptanshu Das