Question: I am a married man. This summer I stepped out of my relationship this summer - I received oral sex around July 15th August 13th-I visit clinic. I was tested for Gonorrhea, Chlamydia, Syphilis, and HIV all results return negative (even though I was early for the syphilis window). I was also treated with Rocephin 250, 1g Azthromycin, and of course 2.4 MU BPG. On August 15,16th I had sex with my wife where we conceived. I was confident that i was fully covered from STD even though I had not cleared the window. I had read a post from Dr. Handsfield on medhelp saying that you are non infectious 24 hours after the shot of BPG (http://www.medhelp.org/posts/STDs/How-long-are-you-contagious-after-treatment-for-syphilis/show/0000) On 9/17 (4 weeks after last exposure) My wife has all her normal tests done with OB/GYN. To both of our suprise the RPR turns up positive (1:1) and the confirmatory done by chemiluminescence (which I though was weird) was negative. I freak out, tell her about the indsicretion She is tested for syphilis via RPR and EIA again 2 weeks later just over 6 weeks from our last sex(Which I have read on medhelp a number of times is conclusive via Dr. Handsfield). The doctor was satisfied but I had read the Trep-Sure test they used, would not be the best test during Primary syphilis.

Are these test sufficient for my wife?

Could I have passed syphilis to her even being treated about 48 hours before our sex

What about the non reactive rpr taken two weeks later as well as the eia (igg/igm). Both of those were negative. Would they prove original 1:1 to be a false positive.

Im still a little worried, is it possible that the second roind of testing 6+ weeks adter pir last sex coild be false negative?