Risk of transmitting to wife after being orally sexuall assaulted. Five questions. Ten nights ago, a female (that I did not know) put her mouth on my penis (against my will). There was no other contact, I was never aroused or anywhere near ejaculating or anything of the like. The next day I went to an urgent care and received the CDC s recommendation for preventative treatment of sexual assaults: Ceftriaxone 250 mg IM in a single dose PLUS Azithromycin 1 g orally in a single dose PLUS Metronidazole 2 g orally in a single dose I received the Ceftriaxone shot at about 8:15pm and took the Azithromycin (powder that you mix with liquid) and Metronidazole at about 9pm. At 10:45pm, I puked multiple times. I informed the doctor the next day that I had puked and they called in a prescription and had me take the Azithromycin 1 g orally in a single dose (this time in pill form) and Metronidazole 2 g orally in a single dose again. I took these at about 7:30 pm (two nights past the incident/risk of exposure). I guess I really have 5 questions: 1. the pharmacist said if I puked more than an hour after taking the initial doses, my body had likely already observed more the medication and the second set was probably unnecessary. Is that true? 2. What curable diseases am I at risk for? 3. Does taking the the antibiotics quickly after the incident (as described above) prevent those diseases from become established and therefore reduce how long I need to wait before I am not at risk of infecting my wife (as apposed to the time tables set forth for established infections an treatment)? 4. How likely is it for me to transmit a treatable STD to my wife if I have sex with her 10 days past taking the final antibiotics? How long until there is virtually no risk? I do not want to tell her about the incident. 5. After taking the antibiotics as I described, how long do I need to wait until I can get a reliable test result on weather or not I have any STDs?