Hello Dr. Prasad I am a woman in Mexico Please answer me about HIV. I had sex with a man one year ago who I know for 6 months. the sex was unprotected, 5 times on one night without ejaculation. He is not bisexual or IV drug user, but had a lot of women until 3 years ago when he married. He told me that was tested negative 1.5 years ago, but I dont know if it is true. He looks healthy and I havent had any symptoms. I have been reading on several experts web sited that the risk in situations like this is very low. I did the math. 1) Mexico has a low HIV presence (acording UNAIDS 0.3%) 2) He is heterosexual and the VIH among this group is low (acording CENSIDA most infected are MSM 66% of all infected people in Mexico) 3) He didnt ejaculate inside me, wich reduces the risk. My question is if all of these considerations are valid to think my risk is very low. I am sorry for write you here, but i am desperate. Thankyou doctor.
I am afraid your calculations are incorrect . That man had 5 times sex the same night without ejaculation itself is a risk factor for acquisition of HIV . His being a frank 'promiscuous' does not help your cause. Above all HIV can't be judged by symptoms as it causes general symptoms like fever, loose motions etc.
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Does Unprotected Intercourse Lead To HIV?
I am afraid your calculations are incorrect . That man had 5 times sex the same night without ejaculation itself is a risk factor for acquisition of HIV . His being a frank promiscuous does not help your cause. Above all HIV can t be judged by symptoms as it causes general symptoms like fever, loose motions etc.