My patient, a woman in her 40's, has been seeing pain management for quite a while before loosing her ins and coming to me at this public health clinic (which means I'm an FP; but I'm a DO and approach musculoskeletal pain differently from MD, mostly). I cannot imagine why she was getting injections in the groin in the first place. She should be in PT but has no ins. I'm trying to get her to do stretches and that has helped some. But she still wants the steroid shots she used to get.
Your opinion, please.