Hi, Got an MRI done for foot pain and swelling. After MRI he said he only did mid foot toward toes, no ankle or heel. My family Dr sent over order so I never saw it. Report was sent to me today stating 1) No acute osseous abnormality appreciated. 2) Diffuse edema in the interosseous muscles of the 1, 2 and 3rd interspaces. This is of uncertain significance but could reflect a sprain or inflammatory changes. 3) Moderate diffuse dorsal subcutaneous edema in the imaged portion of the foot. 4) Small first metatarsal phalangeal joint effusion. The family doctor was afraid of stress fracture and I had been in soft cast for 10 days prior to this MRI on 3/14/15. When I spoke to Family Dr over phone said they don t know why the MRI place didn t do foot and ankle since it was unknown as to my problem. Since the guy conducting the MRI said he didn t do heel or ankle, what exactly does the results of area he imaged tell me. Should I consider this enough or would I need additional imaging of heel and ankle to get complete truth. Thanks for your help