Yes, please. This relates to my 45 year old daughter. She has a history of oxycodone and methadone use. Several weeks ago, she passed out unexpectedly. No warning. I was not there at the time, but my son-in-law said she stood up, said she wasn t feeling well, went limp and fell to the floor. Thankfully, he caught her. Her eyes rolled back in her head. She stopped breathing and began foaming at the mouth. While he was on the phone with 911, she commenced breathing on her own and started to come to. She was talking out of her head and didn t know who he was. By the time the paramedics arrived, she still wasn t altogether with it. They strapped her to the guerney because she was incoherent and combative. By the time they got her into the ambulance, she was making a little more sense and recognized her husband. The ambulance transported her to the ER, but she refused treatment. We surmised at the time that this was a drug overdose of some kind. She claimed that she hadn t taken her methadone for several days, but had taken it that morning. I rather doubt that story, but nothing more rational came to mind. There was a recent article in the local newspaper about fentynal now being the drug of choice because it s easier to obtain and cheaper. What s your opinion on the cause of her recent episode? And, yes, I understand it would be a guess on your part having not had an opportunity to examine the patient.