HiI,in 1982 I contracted Gonorrhea after a one off affair, which I passed on to my husband. He did not and still does not know. I was treated and my Dr. prescribed antibiotics for my husband. (Reason for this was tp save my marriage).Dr. re-tested me a month later after having sex with husband and told I was clear so it would appear husband was too. Some years later husband had epididimytis which was treated with antibiotics and some time later it recurred this time affecting one of his testicles which had to be removed. Three years ago he had a couple of bouts of a urinary infection and now his groin and back hurt. He is back to the Dr for checks. Would the original gonorrhea not have been effectively treated or does it mean that because he had gonorrhea he will continue to fall victim to these ongoing symptoms? What will happen? Is the Dr. able to treat him properly by blood and urine tests without me having to confess? It seems obvious the symptoms are linked. I want him to be well.